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Scalia Mega-Post: the Big One (part I. section A. subsection 1.)
My long overdue (Kermit Roosevelt wrote on 8/1/05, [still] "Waiting for your Scalia post ..."), long promised, eagerly anticipated (see the comments, including the good-humored response by "Not Eh Nonymous" about my "undoubtedly irresistible logic") Response to Scalia - unfortunately, not the entire promised Mega-Post, just the first part.

I have lots to say about Scalia, and I'll say it all, soooner or later, but since this topic is currently in the blawgs, let's tackle it now.

Therefore, I present:

Scalia Mega-Post (First Part): Living Constitutionalism

Scalia's always newsworthy, always a Current Events kind of guy; just recently Dahlia Lithwick (link goes to fan page) held a two-headed contest to discuss the "Living Constitution," which isn't Scalia's idea but is one of his favorite topic. To put it mildly, he doesn't favor the concept. Dahlia's article was ably blogged by Prof. B at "Dahlia Punts," which is true. First she posted liberal responses to "Why Scalia's Wrong" about the Living Constitution; then she posted conservative replies explaining why the Living Constitution is a dead letter, and originalism is either triumphant or plain right.

I. What's the question?

"Not Eh Nonymous," as I alluded above, is a skeptic of my skepticism. "He" (I have no idea, but I'm guessing a male) wrote:

Scalia's proposition, it seems to me, is straightforward: The Constitution ought to be interpreted strictly and in accordance with the intention of the original ratifying parties. This is a well-known approach, for example, to contract interpretation. Any other approach invariably leads to the personal preferences of those intrepreting the document in question.

In a nutshell, what is your response to why this approach to intrepreting the Constitution is incorrect?
Excellently put, Not Eh Nonymous. Let's try to answer your question.

In fact, I may have to have a lot of background before I answer it, so let's hide the preamble behind a jump.

II. Some background on Scalia

Before I discuss the arguments for and against, I want to explain how I know where he's coming from, and what he says about the Living Constitution itself.
I think that's enough preamble. Let's seriously address his thesis, as Not Eh Nonymous urged.

Not Eh Nonymous (comment at Aug 24, 2005 3:51:52) challenged me: what's my answer to the argument that the Constitution Ain't Living because it "ought to be interpreted strictly and in accordance with the intentions of the original ratifying parties."

Well, fine question, NEN.

The original ratifying parties being dead, we have a plethora of choices. Well, at least three:

III. Towards a theory of Constitutional interpretation

Whew. Long post. Hope that addresses NEN's question; I'm sure it doesn't answer all of mine. I'll have more to say about Scalia and his view of the Constitution, as well as of his views on
  • Free Exercise and religion (like the Pledge case)

  • minorities


  • hippies


  • federalism


  • criminal defendants


  • abortion


  • "gays" - since Scalia doesn't use the word, he prefers "homosexual" - less respectful, you see
    dissenting and collegiality

and other fun topics as I find time.

Comments will be much appreciated, unless they're flamingly unpleasant, in which case they will be cherished and then consigned to oblivion.
Scalia MP1 followup: Branding and Casey
[First of all, I wish to make classic blogger error #4, and apologize for the long hiatus between posting. Such apologies draw attention to the error, fail to remedy it, and ring hollow. If I wanted to post daily, I could. It is not possible to post thoughtfully while I'm at trial, and I shouldn't try; but in the meantime, I can get back to regular posting. Here goes.]

Anonymous #4, frequent reader and commenter, wrote in the comments to my first installment of the Scalia MegaPost, on the Living Constitution:

Whose preferences shall be enshrined in the law?
An excellent question, A#4, and I intend to address it.

I recommend everyone to go read his whole comment - wait, why send you, when I can just paste it all here, with hidden HTML so you don't have to see the rest unless you want?
Assuming that a branding case came up to the Supreme Court, should they

1. Hold hearings-
2. Sponsor a study-
3. Put the issue to a referendum-
4. Consult the law of other countries-

Or

5. Consult their own consciences and considered reaction-(rest of comment hidden behind the jump)
(end of comment)

Well, wasn't that special? Let's dialogue with A#4; thanks for the comment. Interesting point. I don't agree, as I indicated in my own comment. But it's Scalia I'm really disagreeing with, at least as much as you.

On Branding
Why Branding doesn't require an impermissible value judgment.

Assuming that a branding case came before the Supreme Court, based on a claim of a constitutional violation under the First, Fifth, and Eighth Amendments and possibly "something else," what should a court do?

Hold a hearing, sponsor studies? Why no, you ninny, as my Crim Law prof was wont to say. The court should look at the text and purpose of the clauses at issue to see if they support a claim. In this case, the Eighth Amendment says, and I quote,
Excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted.
Now, I don't know about you, but i read that as having content. Meaning, I call it. "Excessive" means a judgment call is called for. So do "cruel" and "unusual" - and I'd even misread it on purpose, as "cruel or unusual." Is it a conjunctive and, or does it mean "or"? Do you know? Does anyone? Probably. But let's just read it without the benefit of that knowledge.

The 8th is supposed to allow Congress to be guided by the intentions of the Founders, right? Well, no, I'd argue that it was _intended_ to do nothing whatsoever. Much like the 1st, 2nd, 3rd etc. Amendments, there were several schools of thought:

  1. The Amendment has no meaning and no significance; if someone else wants it, we can stick it in and it won't tie our hands


  2. The Amendment has no meaning, and is important only because it reflects the protections that the Constitution provides in any case - the only danger being that some foolish future generation might not think it obvious that the Constitution itself protects these things, and that therefore "what is not included, was to be excluded." The government being one of limited powers, granted "by the people," it naturally cannot expand its own power. [too bad that one didn't catch on]


  3. The Amendment is crucially important, because those silly Federalists (meaning Federalists, not meaning Anti-Federalists such as some members of FedSoc) want to strip away our rights to have armed militias, to avoid an oppressive establishment Church, to keep soldiers out of our homes, to protect our historical rights to a jury of our peers.

I have sympathy for some of the above. But I don't think the intent matters. What was key to one voter or one state was not to another; the words must govern, as interpreted today.

Justice Scalia's comments that you quoted - that if Roe was not rightly decided at the time, and if it has not produced a settled body of law, then it should be overruled - is a nice argument. I think it's not even adequate, on its own, but that's another argument: the Roe argument.

We're still having the Branding argument.

But feel free to bring up Roe more in comments; maybe I'll complete and publish the Roe post I've been contemplating.
Scalia and language
There's been some interest of late ("Man bites dog": a Supreme Court Justice reviews a law Professor's work) in the recent review by Antonin Scalia of Steven D. Smith's Law's Quandary. Over at Language Log, my one-stop source for Things of Interest Lately That Are Linguistically Inclined, I read this fascinating post:

Scalia on the meaning of meaning, Oct. 29, 2005.

In that post, Language Log host and contributor Mark Liberman notes the fascinating contrast between Smith's theory and Scalia's response, played out on the battlefield of linguistic theory. What's the meaning of a word?

Both Smith and Scalia are discussing meaning, significance, and the proper way of determining same. What's the least ambiguous way? What's the most reliable, the most ethical, the most appropriate way? Both must get somewhat theoretical as they grasp for a handle on handles: what are we talking about when we say something means something?

Scalia, as he has historically, disdains the mind of the author. He has consistently derided legislative history - that is, the contemporaneous but un-enacted statements of the people whose job it was to craft the words of the statute. That's because, as with international law, it is easy to look out over a crowd and pick out one's friends; that is, to act unethically as a judge by deliberately pretending that some out of a crowd support your view.

Meanwhile, Scalia views the proper method of interpretation of the Constitution to be the one consistent not only with its words but with the original meaning. Not the intent, perhaps, of the Framers, but the objective meaning the words had as generally understood.

Smith takes a far contrary position, that words are meaningless absent context.

I disagree with Scalia for policy reasons and for political reasons and for legal reasons, but most of all I have to disagree with him for linguistic reasons. His parable, of

Two persons who speak only English see sculpted in the desert sand the words “LEAVE HERE OR DIE.” It may well be that the words were the fortuitous effect of wind, but the message they convey is clear, and I think our subjects would not gamble on the fortuity.
[...]
As my desert example demonstrates, symbols (such as words) can convey meaning even if there is no intelligent author at all.
is nice poetry, but is weird. Really, really weird.

Mark Liberman does more than just analyze what the two thinkers are saying, he also brings some context.

This debate - where do you look to understand what the meaning is - has aspects of linguistics, in the deep questions of what language is and how it does it. Here's my favorite bit:

It's obvious that the concerns of legislators, lawyers and judges overlap significantly with the subject matter of linguistics and language-related philosophy, and I've always been puzzled about why the real-world interactions between the disciplines and their practitioners seems to be so limited. Reading Scalia's review left me more puzzled than before.

I gather from Scalia's review that Smith's perspective is at least as strongly represented among contemporary legal scholars as Scalia's is. I won't presume to characterize the philosophical state of play on these questions, but let me say that as a practical matter, linguists generally find it necessary to think about both kinds of meaning..."
Liberman's concluding question is a throwaway: "I suppose that legal texts are generally carefully composed and proofread, but errors must occasionally creep in — and do obvious typos or malaprops then have the force of law?" and there's an obvious answer.

Of the many canons of construction, one of them is to disregard minor errors which clearly contradict the entirety of the rest of the corpus, and which would nullify the obvious meaning of the whole. That wasn't supposed to be a second "not"; we judicially omit it. The comma was inadvertent; we disregard it. The word "leaving" was supposed to be "leading," and we take judicial notice of the fact that everyone involved in the whole process believed it did in fact read "leading," and never noticed when it got changed between the final draft and the enacted legislation. Etc.

But Mark's deeper point remains: is there room to synthesize these two putatively opposed views of law and language? I'm not skilled enough on the linguistics side of this to do much heavy lifting there, but I'll see if I can't point up some good stuff in the law to help illuminate this area a little better.
Scalia: a non-controversy with rude gestures
The Boston Herald's latest (and hopefully last) word in the minor media flap about what Justice Scalia did, whether it was obscene, and even whether he is an Italian jurist (in the sense of ethnicity, yes; in the sense of nationality, no; Scalia insisted that he is an American jurist, which is both true and silly, since there was no need to identify his citizenship or residence in a domestic news piece, but his extraction was relevant to what he said and did) is this piece: Photographer: Herald Got It Right.

Scalia, no stranger to controversy (the duck-hunting contretemps in which he went out hunting with Dick Cheney (seems braver in retrospect, now), whose energy task force paper case would soon be heard by the Court; the question whether he would recuse from the Newdow pledge case after a speech he made went to the merits of the claim; the (in my opinion) non-scandal involving his presence at a scholarly program which included tennis) and in particular media controversy (recall an incident involving a student journalist who had their recorder confiscated), now finds himself again in the middle.

This time, in a humorous moment more reminiscent of his sometime hunting partner (see, e.g. Cheney Dismisses Critic with Obscenity, washpost), only without the element of personal confrontation, Scalia engaged in the following exchange:

Reporter (paraphrase): Scalia, J, you just participated in Sunday's special Mass; that could make people question your impartiality in matters of Church and State.

Scalia (his version): "I responded, jocularly, with a gesture that consisted of fanning the fingers of my right hand under my chin. Seeing that she did not understand, I said, ‘That’s Sicilian,’ and explained its meaning."

Scalia (a witnesses' version): "The judge paused for a second, then looked directly into my lens and said, ‘To my critics, I say, ‘Vaffanculo,’ " punctuating the comment by flicking his right hand out from under his chin, Smith said.

[The Italian phrase means "(expletive) you."]

So, if true, Scalia did literally "respond jocularly" and with a gesture that consisted of..., but the two parts go together.

The literal meaning of Scalia's brush-off gesture is not obscene. It's a buzz-off, an "I take no position" kind of thing. Like pushing the air away, it distances the speaker from the subject or target. But when you pair it with its commonly associated phrase, you can have something a bit more vulgar. I wouldn't say obscene, but certainly not polite.

In the end, I think the whole thing is a bit of teapotted tempestry, which continues to draw attention for the personality (and fame and controversy) of the central figure rather than for any real content.

After gesturing, according to the same witness, Scalia "immediately knew he’d made a mistake, and said, ‘You’re not going to print that, are you?’" Alas, he should know that few reporters (or photographers) will today honor such a request. After all, it's interesting, it'll draw readers, and it's mildly embarassing.

I guess Scalia's lucky he wasn't a Texas A&M fan rooting for his team.
Supreme Court: Knock, don't knock, we won't exclude
The Supreme Court today, by a 5-4 divided court, upheld the conviction of a defendant who objected to the use of evidence to convict him, which was discovered in his home and on his person subsequent to an admittedly (by the State) illegal, unconstitutional search. The case is Hudson v. Michigan, No. 04-1360 (PDF).

Of course, it wasn't a search made without a warrant, as Scalia happily notes. That would be offensive to notions of privacy which are, essentially, as old as the hills.

It was a search made with a warrant, but not in compliance with the usual rule of "Knock, announce, wait, and then enter." Knock & announce is intended, among other things, to:
  • prevent bloodshed, as when residents "defend" themselves against unidentified "invaders" trespassing suddenly on their property,

  • avoid needless confrontation, as when residents would comply with a request to open for a lawful search, or when they would even consent to a warrantless search, and

  • allow a modicum of privacy, so an inhabitant may put on clothes or get out of bed.


Further, the language in Mapp v. Ohio (1961; incorporating the exclusion rule of U.S. v. Weeks against the States via the Fourteenth Amendment), Scalia notes, was widely sweeping dicta, and should be ignored.

Some rules, Scalia wants it to be known, matter. Some rules, when violated, produce outrageous and offensive results.

Others, such as rules which, when violated, prevent a criminal defendant from arming himself or destroying evidence, present no such repugnant situation. There's not only no right of a perp to shoot back, Scalia is implying, but there's also no right to flush the junk (or in this case, the rocks).

What does Scalia use in order to determine when a rule requires exclusion and when it doesn't? A balancing test. When are society's needs sufficiently great as to overcome the harm to the defendant from ignoring the rule.

The inevitable result will be that guilty (or guilty-seeming) defendants will never get the protection of any constitutional rule, and innocent-seeming ones will always. This is Scalia's rulemaking for you: a bright line. If you're guilty, don't bother looking to the Constitution for protection.

Useful links



Previous Scalia posts chained below.